My dad has been selling life insurance and retirement plans for a long time now and I have done a lot of talking with him about how he gets people to buy the products he sells. For this post I will focus on the life insurance. Life insurance, as most people know, is there to keep deliver money to the beneficiaries in the event of the policy holder’s death to prevent pain of having to pay for funeral costs out of pocket. That money can be used to cover funeral expenses, lost wages from grieving, etc. In class we talk about pain and how no pain means no sale but in a lot of cases, my dad sells to people who have not experienced the pain of paying for the funeral out of pocket (which in a lot of cases can cost around $10k). However, somewhere in previous generations of a family that has purchased life insurance they have experienced that which is probably why they bought the insurance. So my question is can pain for one person translate to pain for another? For example, Bob’s dad died with no life insurance so Bob had to pay out of pocket for the funeral. Bob then purchased life insurance so his daughter did not have to pay for his funeral out of pocket. Then his daughter purchased life insurance even though there was no pain of having to pay out of pocket for the funeral. Would this be an exception to the rule of no pain no sale or can pain for one person count for the pain of another person?
By Owen Mathias
BoweryJE22 2 thoughts on “Can someone else’s pain translate to your pain?”
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I think someone else’s pain can directly translate into their own pain – especially for something that we can emotionally connect to like death and funerals. Good question and nice post!
-Asher
I really like to see a blog post that poses a question for the readers. It is certainly an interesting question and promotes thought about how different people experience pain, and how to sell to that pain, especially when the pain is something that has not happened yet. Very interesting post.